One word in each sentence is false

Add one word in each sentence to make a correct passive sentence.Then write which tense each sentence is in

Светило науки — 550752 ответа — 388270 раз оказано помощи

1. —
2. Many new gadgets have been invented in the 21st centuary   Present perfect
3. Many jobs will/are going to be done by robots    Simple future
4. Velcro, penicillin and the microwave oven were invented by accident Past simple
5. Millions of dollars are spent on video games every year   Present simple
6. Football is watched by millions of people on TV each weekend   Present simple
7. The novel The fault in Our Starts was written by John Green in 2011 Past simple

Материалы промежуточной аттестации по английскому языку в 8 классе.

Учитель: Косенкова Н.А

Принято на заседании
педагогического совета

протокол № ____ от

«__» __________ 20__ г.

2015-2016 год

Part I. Reading.

Variant 1

Read the text. Below the text there are seven statements. Decide if each sentence is “True” or “False”. If the sentence is true, put a letter “T”, if it is false, put letter “F”.

Sports

Interviewer: So, Mr Gray, thank you for your coming to talk to us today. I’d like to start off with the question which is very interesting to me.

Gray: OK, fine.

I: Is there any difference between running and jogging?

G: In reality, there is no difference between running and jogging. Jogging is a term sometimes used for running slowly. Whether you are considering jogging or considering running, all that you need is a little enthusiasm to get started.

 I: What should we begin with?

G: Be realistic. Don’t run marathon in a three month’s time if you’ve never done it before. Listen to your body. Your level of fitness will determine your starting level. I recommend to start with walk and run for 10 minutes in total. Run and walk every other day gradually reducing the walking time and increasing the running time until you can run for the full 10 minutes.

I: So, 10 minutes a day is enough?

G: I say: listen to your body. If you feel good, I recommend to increase running time by a minute or two every third session, until you can manage 30 minutes three times a week.

I: Is it a sport for all people?

 G: Running is a available for everyone. If you are healthy you can start to run. But you have a history of diabetes, angina, asthma, epilepsy, high blood pressure, chest rain, then consult your doctor first. Never ran when suffering from a viral illness or fever.

I: Do you think it’s better to start it in a running club under of instructors control?

G: There are running clubs in most towns and many villages. Most welcome new runners of any standard and all age groups. If you are a competitive and sociable person, a running club is very good for you. But this sport can be personal too. Some people like being on their own.

 I: What is the best time for running?

G: You can run any time of the day anywhere you happen to be. When running at night it’s safer to ran in groups. At night it’s important to wear bright colours and reflective clothing.

I: So, clothes are important, aren’t they?

G: The most important part of a running wardrobe is a good pair of running shoes. These are available from any good running shop. Clothing should be bright preferably with reflective stripes for running in the dark.

I: Thank you, Dan. We are looking forward to listening to you in our next programme about swimming.

1. You don’t need doctor’s advice if you want to start running.
2. You should start with a 10-minute session
3. After a three-month time you can ran a marathon
4. You don’t have to run only in the morning
5. You can only join running club if you are an experienced runner
6. It’s always advisable to run in groups
7. There are special clothes for running in the dark

Part II. Language in use.

Complete sentences with the words derived from the words in brackets.

1. My friend has got a huge ___________ of coins.(COLLECT)
2. John has a lot of hobbies. One of his hobbies is _____________.(READ)
3. My sister likes to go the cinema very much. She __________ goes there on Saturdays( USUAL)
4. A lot of conflicts threaten peace and make living in these places_____________.(DANGER)
5. I went to London last summer with my parents but ___________ with my friends is a lot more fun (TRAVEL)

Part III. Grammar.

A.  Fill in the gaps with the correct form of the verbs in brackets.

1. My mother __________(to cook) supper by 6 o’clock yesterday.
2. The new rules _____________(to explain) to the students tomorrow.
3. Listen! Somebody __________(to play) the piano in the next room.
4. We __________(to work) without a break since 8 o’clock in the morning.
5. Nick is an artist. He __________(to draw) these beautiful landscapes last week

B. Read the story below and decide which answer A,B,C,D best fits each space.

Maid Marian

Maid Marian was the pretty 1__________ lady Robin wanted to marry. She lived in Nottingham with her family. Marian helped 2__________ people too and often went to the forest to tell Robin about the 3_________ things the Sheriff did. The Sheriff sent his soldiers to arrest Maid Marian. «Do you know the outlaw called Robin Hood»? 4_____________ the Sheriff «No , I don’t», said Marian. «I think you know him very 5__________», said the Sheriff. «Take her to the dungeon»! Robin received a secret message from Marian 6___________ she was a prisoner in Nottingham Castle. «We 7________ save her», said the men. «Tomorrow is Nottingham Fair and the archery contest. Then tomorrow we will go and save Maid Marian and win the contest, 8___________»! «We can dress as jugglers and clowns», said Little John. «My dogs can perform», said Friar Truck. «I can sing and play my 9___________», said Alan-A-Dale. «And I will go to the castle and rescue Marian», Robin said.

The women in the forest worked all day. They 10________ suits for clowns and jugglers. The men looked so funny that everybody laughed!

 

Part IV. Writing.

Write a letter to your British friend (Ann) about yourself, your family, your town, about your flat.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE TEST     FORM 8

Variant-2

        Part I. Reading.

Read the text. about . Below the text there are seven statements. Decide if each sentence is “True” or “False”. If the sentence is true, put a letter “T”, if it is false, put letter “F”.

Travelling

Dear sir madam,

I’m writing to complain about the Fun Ways Travel holiday my family and I went on last month.

Your newspaper advertisement recommended the holiday as being «Seven fun and sun filled days on a Mediterranean island», so decided it would be suitable for my family. I realize now that this was a big mistake.

Firstly, when we arrived nobody was there to meet us. There should have been transport from the airport to the hotel but there wasn’t. We were able to get a taxi, but only after waiting for an hour in the hot sun!

Secondly, when we arrived at the hotel, we found that only one room was reserved. All the other hotels on the island were full so four of us had to stay in one room.

Thirdly, the hotel wasn’t a modern building only five minutes walk from sea. It was a small, old place situated in a mountain at least thirty minutes drive to the nearest beach.

And lastly, when we eventually met the tour guide, she was extremely rude to us. I don’t think she should have been so impolite. She didn’t help us at all.

You can imagine how angry I feel about spending a lot of money for a holiday which ought to have been better organized.

Yours sincerely,

David Johnston

1. David wrote this letter to criticize a holiday.
2. A friend suggested that the Fun Ways holiday was great.
3. There should have been two rooms at the hotel for a David and his family.
4. David and his family found another hotel to stay in.
5. The hotel was only five minutes from the beach
6. The tour guide was not helpful.
7. David is angry because the holiday was badly organized.

Part II. Language in use.

Complete sentences with the words derived from the words in brackets.

1. My uncle likes to communicate with people. He is a ______________ businessman. (SUCCESS)
2. Nick enjoys _____________ walks in  the park in the evening. (DAY)
3. Mary’s homework was ______________ prepared. So her mark was excellent. (CAREFUL)
4. Let’s go to the concert. It will be a _______________ show! (WONDER)
5. I like to go to London very much. There are a lot of _____________ there. (ATTRACT)

Part III. Grammar.

1.     Fill in the gaps with the correct form of the verbs in brackets.

1. John plays football very well. It is worth _______(to take) part in a sports competition at the stadium.
2. World War II _________(to declare) in 1939.
3. My sister ___________(to live) in London since childhood.
4. I ____________(to cook) dinner already. Help yourself!
5. I __________(to visit) England last year. It was unforgettable!

1.     Read the story below and decide which answer A,B,C,D best fits each space.

Tornadoes

Tornadoes are storms with very 1__________ turning winds and dark clouds. These winds are perhaps the strongest on the 2____________. They reach speeds of 300 miles per hour. The dark clouds are shaped like a funnel(воронка) – wide at the top and narrow at the bottom. The winds are strongest in 3__________ centre of funnel. Tornadoes are especially common in the United States, but only in certain parts. They occur mainly in the 4_________ states.

A hot afternoon in the spring is the most likely time for a tornado. 5________ become dark. There is thunder, lightning and rain. A cloud forms a funnel and begins to twist. The funnel 6________ faster and faster. The faster the winds, the louder the noise. Tornadoes always move 7________ a northeastern direction. They never last longer than eight hours.

A tornado’s path is narrow, but within that narrow path a tornado destroy 8________. It can smash buildings and rip up trees. Tornadoes can kill people as well. The 9________ tornado swept through the state Missouri, Illinois and Indiana in 1925, killing 689 people. Modern weather 10__________ now makes it possible to warm people of tornadoes. People have a much better chance of protecting themselves. But nothing can stop tornadoes from destroying everything in their path.

 

Part IV. Writing.

Write a letter to your British friend (Ted) about yourself, your family, your town, about your flat.

Материалы для промежуточной аттестации по английскому языку в 8 классе.

Назначение работы- оценить уровень общеобразовательной подготовки по английскому языку обучающихся 8 класса.

Характеристика структуры и содержания работы – контрольная работа составлена в двух вариантах и включает в себя 4 задания.

Задание 1 ( чтение) предлагает обучающимся определить верные и неверные предложения из текста.

Задание 2  – словообразование ( видоизменение частей речи, подбор однокоренных слов).

Задание 3 –задания  по грамматике и лексике (определение видовременных форм глагола, выбор правильного лексического ответа).

В разделе 4 ( задание по письму ) предлагается написать личное письмо.

Система оценивания

Максимальное количество баллов в работе – 27.

Каждое правильно выполненное задание оценивается одним баллом.

При наличии ошибок у обучающихся в работе предлагаются следующая шкала оценивания:

«5» — 27-24 баллов

«4» — 23-18 баллов

«3» — 17-13 баллов

Менее 13 баллов – «2».

Задание 4 оценивается отдельно.

На выполнение работы отводится 45 минут.

Keys

Variant-1

Part I. Reading.

1	2	3	4	5	6	7
F	T	F	T	F	F	T

Part II. Language in use.

1. Collection 2. Reading 3. Usually 4. Dangerous 5. Travelling

Part III. Grammar.

1. 1-had cooked 2-will be explained 3- is playing 4- have been working 5-drew
2. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D, 5-B, 6-D, 7-C, 8-A, 9-D ,10-B.

Variant-2

Part I. Reading

1	2	3	4	5	6	7
T	F	T	F	F	T	T

Part II. Language in use

1. Successful 2. Daily 3. Carefully 4. Wonderful 5. Attractions

Part III. Grammar

1.  1. Taking 2. Was declared 3. Has been living 4. Have cooked 5. Visited
2. 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-B, 5-C, 6-D, 7-B, 8-A, 9-C, 10-A.

ОЛИМПИАДА

по английскому языку.

Учитель: Макарова И.В.

2014-2015 год

Назначение работы- оценить уровень общеобразовательной подготовки по английскому языку обучающихся.

Характеристика структуры и содержания работы – олимпиада составлена в двух вариантах и включает в себя 4 задания.

Задание 1 ( чтение) предлагает обучающимся определить верные и неверные предложения из текста.

Задание 2 – словообразование ( видоизменение частей речи, подбор однокоренных слов).

Задание 3 –задания по грамматике и лексике (определение видовременных форм глагола, выбор правильного лексического ответа).

В разделе 4 ( задание по письму ) предлагается написать личное письмо.

Система оценивания

Максимальное количество баллов в работе – 27.

Каждое правильно выполненное задание оценивается одним баллом.

При наличии ошибок у обучающихся в работе предлагаются следующая шкала оценивания:

«5» — 27-24 баллов

«4» — 23-18 баллов

«3» — 17-13 баллов

Менее 13 баллов – «2».

Задание 4 оценивается отдельно.

На выполнение работы отводится 45 минут.

Part I. Reading.

Variant 1

Read the text. Below the text there are seven statements. Decide if each sentence is “True” or “False”. If the sentence is true, put a letter “T”, if it is false, put letter “F”.

Sports

Interviewer: So, Mr Gray, thank you for your coming to talk to us today. I’d like to start off with the question which is very interesting to me.

Gray: OK, fine.

I: Is there any difference between running and jogging?

G: In reality, there is no difference between running and jogging. Jogging is a term sometimes used for running slowly. Whether you are considering jogging or considering running, all that you need is a little enthusiasm to get started.

I: What should we begin with?

G: Be realistic. Don’t run marathon in a three month’s time if you’ve never done it before. Listen to your body. Your level of fitness will determine your starting level. I recommend to start with walk and run for 10 minutes in total. Run and walk every other day gradually reducing the walking time and increasing the running time until you can run for the full 10 minutes.

I: So, 10 minutes a day is enough?

G: I say: listen to your body. If you feel good, I recommend to increase running time by a minute or two every third session, until you can manage 30 minutes three times a week.

I: Is it a sport for all people?

G: Running is a available for everyone. If you are healthy you can start to run. But you have a history of diabetes, angina, asthma, epilepsy, high blood pressure, chest rain, then consult your doctor first. Never ran when suffering from a viral illness or fever.

I: Do you think it’s better to start it in a running club under of instructors control?

G: There are running clubs in most towns and many villages. Most welcome new runners of any standard and all age groups. If you are a competitive and sociable person, a running club is very good for you. But this sport can be personal too. Some people like being on their own.

I: What is the best time for running?

G: You can run any time of the day anywhere you happen to be. When running at night it’s safer to ran in groups. At night it’s important to wear bright colours and reflective clothing.

I: So, clothes are important, aren’t they?

G: The most important part of a running wardrobe is a good pair of running shoes. These are available from any good running shop. Clothing should be bright preferably with reflective stripes for running in the dark.

I: Thank you, Dan. We are looking forward to listening to you in our next programme about swimming.

1. You don’t need doctor’s advice if you want to start running.

2. You should start with a 10-minute session

3. After a three-month time you can ran a marathon

4. You don’t have to run only in the morning

5. You can only join running club if you are an experienced runner

6. It’s always advisable to run in groups

7. There are special clothes for running in the dark

Part II. Language in use.

Complete sentences with the words derived from the words in brackets.

1. My friend has got a huge ___________ of coins.(COLLECT)

2. John has a lot of hobbies. One of his hobbies is _____________.(READ)

3. My sister likes to go the cinema very much. She __________ goes there on Saturdays( USUAL)

4. A lot of conflicts threaten peace and make living in these places_____________.(DANGER)

5. I went to London last summer with my parents but ___________ with my friends is a lot more fun (TRAVEL)

Part III. Grammar.

A. Fill in the gaps with the correct form of the verbs in brackets.

1. My mother __________(to cook) supper by 6 o’clock yesterday.

2. The new rules _____________(to explain) to the students tomorrow.

3. Listen! Somebody __________(to play) the piano in the next room.

4. We __________(to work) without a break since 8 o’clock in the morning.

5. Nick is an artist. He __________(to draw) these beautiful landscapes last week

B. Read the story below and decide which answer A,B,C,D best fits each space.

Maid Marian

Maid Marian was the pretty 1__________ lady Robin wanted to marry. She lived in Nottingham with her family. Marian helped 2__________ people too and often went to the forest to tell Robin about the 3_________ things the Sheriff did. The Sheriff sent his soldiers to arrest Maid Marian. «Do you know the outlaw called Robin Hood»? 4_____________ the Sheriff «No , I don’t», said Marian. «I think you know him very 5__________», said the Sheriff. «Take her to the dungeon»! Robin received a secret message from Marian 6___________ she was a prisoner in Nottingham Castle. «We 7________ save her», said the men. «Tomorrow is Nottingham Fair and the archery contest. Then tomorrow we will go and save Maid Marian and win the contest, 8___________»! «We can dress as jugglers and clowns», said Little John. «My dogs can perform», said Friar Truck. «I can sing and play my 9___________», said Alan-A-Dale. «And I will go to the castle and rescue Marian», Robin said.

The women in the forest worked all day. They 10________ suits for clowns and jugglers. The men looked so funny that everybody laughed!

Part IV. Writing.

Write a letter to your British friend (Ann) about yourself, your family, your town, about your flat.

ENGLISH LANGUAGE TEST

Variant-2

Part I. Reading.

Read the text. about . Below the text there are seven statements. Decide if each sentence is “True” or “False”. If the sentence is true, put a letter “T”, if it is false, put letter “F”.

Travelling

Dear sir madam,

I’m writing to complain about the Fun Ways Travel holiday my family and I went on last month.

Your newspaper advertisement recommended the holiday as being «Seven fun and sun filled days on a Mediterranean island», so decided it would be suitable for my family. I realize now that this was a big mistake.

Firstly, when we arrived nobody was there to meet us. There should have been transport from the airport to the hotel but there wasn’t. We were able to get a taxi, but only after waiting for an hour in the hot sun!

Secondly, when we arrived at the hotel, we found that only one room was reserved. All the other hotels on the island were full so four of us had to stay in one room.

Thirdly, the hotel wasn’t a modern building only five minutes walk from sea. It was a small, old place situated in a mountain at least thirty minutes drive to the nearest beach.

And lastly, when we eventually met the tour guide, she was extremely rude to us. I don’t think she should have been so impolite. She didn’t help us at all.

You can imagine how angry I feel about spending a lot of money for a holiday which ought to have been better organized.

Yours sincerely,

David Johnston

1. David wrote this letter to criticize a holiday.

2. A friend suggested that the Fun Ways holiday was great.

3. There should have been two rooms at the hotel for a David and his family.

4. David and his family found another hotel to stay in.

5. The hotel was only five minutes from the beach

6. The tour guide was not helpful.

7. David is angry because the holiday was badly organized.

Part II. Language in use.

Complete sentences with the words derived from the words in brackets.

1. My uncle likes to communicate with people. He is a ______________ businessman. (SUCCESS)

2. Nick enjoys _____________ walks in the park in the evening. (DAY)

3. Mary’s homework was ______________ prepared. So her mark was excellent. (CAREFUL)

4. Let’s go to the concert. It will be a _______________ show! (WONDER)

5. I like to go to London very much. There are a lot of _____________ there. (ATTRACT)

Part III. Grammar.

1. Fill in the gaps with the correct form of the verbs in brackets.

1. John plays football very well. It is worth _______(to take) part in a sports competition at the stadium.

2. World War II _________(to declare) in 1939.

3. My sister ___________(to live) in London since childhood.

4. I ____________(to cook) dinner already. Help yourself!

5. I __________(to visit) England last year. It was unforgettable!

1. Read the story below and decide which answer A,B,C,D best fits each space.

Tornadoes

Tornadoes are storms with very 1__________ turning winds and dark clouds. These winds are perhaps the strongest on the 2____________. They reach speeds of 300 miles per hour. The dark clouds are shaped like a funnel(воронка) – wide at the top and narrow at the bottom. The winds are strongest in 3__________ centre of funnel. Tornadoes are especially common in the United States, but only in certain parts. They occur mainly in the 4_________ states.

A hot afternoon in the spring is the most likely time for a tornado. 5________ become dark. There is thunder, lightning and rain. A cloud forms a funnel and begins to twist. The funnel 6________ faster and faster. The faster the winds, the louder the noise. Tornadoes always move 7________ a northeastern direction. They never last longer than eight hours.

A tornado’s path is narrow, but within that narrow path a tornado destroy 8________. It can smash buildings and rip up trees. Tornadoes can kill people as well. The 9________ tornado swept through the state Missouri, Illinois and Indiana in 1925, killing 689 people. Modern weather 10__________ now makes it possible to warm people of tornadoes. People have a much better chance of protecting themselves. But nothing can stop tornadoes from destroying everything in their path.

Part IV. Writing.

Write a letter to your British friend (Ted) about yourself, your family, your town, about your flat.

Keys

Variant-1

Part I. Reading.

Part II. Language in use.

1. Collection 2. Reading 3. Usually 4. Dangerous 5. Travelling

Part III. Grammar.

1. 1-had cooked 2-will be explained 3- is playing 4- have been working 5-drew

2. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D, 5-B, 6-D, 7-C, 8-A, 9-D ,10-B.

Variant-2

Part I. Reading

Part II. Language in use

1. Successful 2. Daily 3. Carefully 4. Wonderful 5. Attractions

Part III. Grammar

1. 1. Taking 2. Was declared 3. Has been living 4. Have cooked 5. Visited

2. 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-B, 5-C, 6-D, 7-B, 8-A, 9-C, 10-A.